set-2

51. Which of the following networking devices is used to connect two different networks?

1. Hub
2. Switch
3. Router
4. All of the above

52. An ______ is a network security tool that monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and issues alerts when such activity is discovered.

1. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
2. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
3. Both of the above
4. None of these

53. In computer networking, which protocol is used to map IP network address to hardware MAC address?

1. SNMP
2. ARP
3. TCP/IP
4. PPP

54. In OSI reference model, which layer is responsible for error-free, end-to-end (process-to-process) delivery of data from source host to destination host?

1. Network layer
2. Transport layer
3. Presentation layer
4. Application layer

55. The X.25 standard specifies

1. DTE/DCE interface
2. Start – stop data
3. Data bit rate
4. Dial up access

56. Which one of the following network devices uses the higher number of layers in the OSI Model?

1. Switch
2. Router
3. Bridge
4. All use the same number of layers

57. Firewall which is designed to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an organization’s previously established security policies is implemented in

1. Hardware
2. Software
3. Combination of hardware and software
4. All of the above

58. In information security, asymmetric cryptography uses______.

1. Public and private keys for encryption and decryption
2. Same key for both encryption and decryption
3. Both of the above
4. None of these

59. Protocol Data Unit (PDU) of data link layer is known as

1. Frame
2. Datagram
3. Message
4. Segment

60. Protocol Data Unit (PDU) of transport layer is known as

1. Frame
2. Datagram
3. Segment
4. Both B and C

61. Protocol Data Unit (PDU) of network layer is known as

1. Frame
2. Packet
3. Datagram
4. Segment

62. A pseudo private data network that uses public bandwidth in combination with a tunneling protocol and security procedures is called

1. Value Added Network (VAN)
2. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
3. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)
4. Intranet

63. In OSI model, ______ layer is responsible for getting packets from source node to the destination node.

1. Transport layer
2. Network layer
3. Data link layer
4. Physical layer

64. Medium Access Control (MAC) address consists of --- number of bits.

1. 32
2. 48
3. 64
4. 128

65. FDDI stands for

1. Fiber Detected Data Interface
2. Fiber Detected Data Interchange
3. Fiber Distributed Data Interchange
4. Fiber Distributed Data Interface

66. Firewalls cannot prevent ______ attack.

1. Denial of Service (DoS)
2. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
3. Both of the above
4. None of these

67. Symmetric cryptography uses

1. Public and private keys for encryption and decryption
2. Same key for both encryption and decryption
3. Both of the above
4. None of these

68. In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are the responsibilities of

1. Session layer
2. Network layer
3. Transport layer
4. Data link layer

69. How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Seven

70. Which of the following communication modes support two-way traffic but in only one direction at a time?

1. Simplex
2. Half Duplex
3. Duplex
4. None of these

71. Which one of the following uses the highest number of layers in the OSI model?

1. Bridge
2. Switch
3. Router
4. Gateway

72. What is the subnet mask of Class C IP address with 4 bits of subnetting?

1. 255.255.240.0
2. 255.255.255.240
3. 255.255.16.0
4. 255.255.255.16

73. In Local Area Network (LAN), ____ protocol maps a dynamic IP address to a permanent physical media access control (MAC) address.

1. Address Resolution protocol
2. Point to Point protocol
3. Network Address Translation protocol
4. None of these

74. While transmitting signal in the data link layer, _____ is correct in case of CSMA/CD.

1. CSMA/CD is effective before a collision
2. CSMA/CD is effective after a collision
3. CSMA/CD is effective in both before and after a collision
4. None of these

75. Which statement is not correct in case of VLAN?

1. VLAN is a logical overlay network that groups together a subset of devices that share a physical LAN
2. VLANs can help manage broadcast traffic by forming multiple broadcast domains.
3. VLAN separates an existing physical network into multiple physical networks
4. Implementing VLANs reduces the security risks

76. While transmitting signal in the data link layer, ______ method has the highest number of collisions observed.

1. 1-Persistent CSMA
2. P-Persistent CSMA
3. Non-Persistent CSMA
4. None of these

77. The subnet mask represented by the CIDR notation 20 (/20) is

1. 255.255.255.0
2. 255.255.248.0
3. 255.255.240.0
4. 255.255.224.0

78. ______ is the feature of NAT in Internet connectivity.

1. It connects a large number of hosts to the global Internet using a smaller number of public IP address, thereby conserving IP address space
2. It enhances security for private networks by keeping internal addressing private from the external network
3. Both of the above
4. None of these

79. A routing protocol that refers to a gateway protocol which enables the Internet to exchange routing information between autonomous systems (AS) is known as

1. BGP
2. OSPF
3. RIP
4. Both B and C

80. Which transport layer protocol doesn’t guarantee the delivery of packets?

1. TCP
2. UDP
3. Both of the above
4. None of these

81. Which of the following statements is not true in case of circuit switching and packet switching?

1. Circuit switching is connection oriented but packet switching is connectionless
2. In-Circuit switching, data is processed at the source system only
3. In Packet switching, data is processed at all intermediate nodes including the source system
4. Bandwidth utilization is more in circuit switching than packet switching

82. ______ is a network server that automatically assigns IP addresses, default gateways and other network parameters to client devices.

1. DNS
2. DHCP
3. Web Server
4. Proxy Server

83. In IT/IS security, which happens first, Authentication or Authorization?

1. Authentication
2. Authorization
3. Simultaneously
4. Anyone can happen first

84. A computer related threat which attempts to obtain sensitive information by masquerading as a trustworthy entity is called

1. E-mail fraud
2. SPAM
3. Phishing
4. None of these

85. ______ VPN allows users to connect remotely to an entire network and all its applications.

1. IPSec VPN
2. SSL VPN
3. TLS VPN
4. All of the above

86. In IT/IS security, which access control type is the most secure and inflexible?

1. Discretionary Access Control
2. Mandatory Access Control
3. Role-Based Access Control
4. Rule-Based Access Control

87. Which of the following statements is not true in case of IP address and MAC address?

1. Both addresses uniquely identify the device on a network
2. Both IP and MAC are logical addresses
3. Compared to MAC address, IP address operates on a higher layer of the OSI model
4. None of these

88. In computer networks, ___ refers to a gateway protocol that enables the internet to exchange routing information between autonomous systems (ASs).

1. Open Shortest Path First
2. Routing Information Protocol
3. Border Gateway Protocol
4. All of the above

89. In computer networks, ___ is not a remote access protocol.

1. SSH
2. RDP
3. RAS
4. SNMP

90. Which of the following windows commands is used in network troubleshooting?

1. Ping
2. Tracert
3. Ipconfig
4. All of the above

91. Which statement is not correct in case of digital and handwritten signatures?

1. A digital signature is a mathematical algorithm used to validate the authenticity and integrity of an electronic document
2. Digital signature provides far more inherent security than handwritten signature
3. Just like a handwritten signature, a digital signature is unique for every document
4. Digital signature ensures authentication, integrity and non-repudiation of the signed document

92. Identify the incorrect statement in case of IPS and IDS, in network security.

1. IDS is a device or software application that monitors a network or systems for malicious activity or policy violations
2. IPS controls access to IT networks in order to protect systems from attack and abuse
3. Both IDS and IPS can block malicious traffic if an attack is identified before it spreads to the rest of the network
4. None of these

93. Which cryptography needs an encryption key to be shared among users to communicate securely with each other?

1. Symmetric cryptography
2. Asymmetric cryptography
3. Both of the above
4. None of these

94. While transmitting signal in the data link layer, CSMA/CA is effective ___.

1. Before a collision
2. After a collision
3. Both before and after a collision
4. None of these

95. The subnet mask represented by the CIDR notation 25 (125) is

1. 255.255.255.0
2. 255.255.255.128
3. 255.255.255.192
4. 255.255.128.0

96. A routing protocol that refers to a gateway protocol which enables the Internet to exchange routing information within an autonomous system (AS) is known as

1. BGP
2. OSPF
3. RIP
4. Both B and C

97. In ___, receiver’s data is prevented from being overwhelmed.

1. Flow control
2. Congestion control
3. Both flow and congestion control
4. None of these

98. Which mechanism controls the entry of data packets into the network; enabling a better use of a shared network infrastructure and avoiding congestive collapse?

1. Flow control
2. Congestion control
3. Both flow and congestion control
4. None of these

99. In the cryptography world, RSA algorithm is used for _____.

1. Symmetric cryptography
2. Asymmetric cryptography
3. Both of the above
4. None of these

100. A digital signature is a mathematical technique which validates _____ of the message, software or digital documents.

1. Authenticity
2. Message Integrity
3. Non-repudiation
4. All of the above

101. A process which verifies the identity of a user who wants to access the system is called

1. Authentication
2. Non-repudiation
3. Integrity
4. None of these

102. In information security, --- ensures that a message has not been tampered with or altered during transmission.

1. Authentication
2. Non-repudiation
3. Integrity
4. None of these

103. Which feature of digital signature ensures that no party can deny the authenticity of their signature on a document?

1. Authentication
2. Non-repudiation
3. Integrity
4. None of these